AP Bio Chapter 20 Questions

1) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20.1?
A) ligase
B) transcriptase
C) a restriction enzyme
D) RNA polymerase
E) DNA polymerase

Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to
A) insert the fragments cut with X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid.
B) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with Y into the
plasmid.
C) cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the
plasmid cut with the same enzyme.
D) cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the
ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X.
E) cut the plasmid with enzyme X and then insert the gene into the plasmid.

3) What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes?
A) to add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA
B) to join nucleotides during replication
C) to join nucleotides during transcription
D) to cleave nucleic acids at specific sites
E) to repair breaks in sugar-phosphate backbones

4) How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?
A) adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines
B) using DNA ligase to seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
C) adding histones to protect the double-stranded DNA
D) forming ʺsticky endsʺ of bacterial DNA to prevent the enzyme from attaching
E) reinforcing the bacterial DNA structure with covalent phosphodiester bonds

5) What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
I. Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. ExtractplasmidDNAfrombacterialcells.
IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments.
V.
Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.
A) I, II, IV, III, V
B) II, III, V, IV, I
C) III, II, IV, V, I
D) III, IV, V, I, II
E) IV, V, I, II, III

6) Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process?
A) examining the cells with an electron microscope
B) using radioactive tracers to locate the plasmids
C) exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the resistant plasmid
D) removing the DNA of all cells in a culture to see which cells have plasmids
E) producing antibodies specific for each bacterium containing a recombinant plasmid

7) Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow
A) in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing tetracycline.
B) only in the broth containing both antibiotics.
C) in the broth containing tetracycline, but not in the broth containing ampicillin. D) in all four types of broth.
E) in the nutrient broth without antibiotics only.

8) Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in
A) the nutrient broth only.
B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only.
C) the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth.
D) all four types of broth.
E) the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth.

9) Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?
A) the nutrient broth only
B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth C) the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth
D) the tetracycline broth and the ampicillin broth
E) all four broths

10) A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a bacterial plasmid, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that
A) prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes. B) bacteria translate polycistronic messages only.
C) bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns.
D) bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA.
E) bacterial DNA is not found in a membrane-bounded nucleus and is therefore incompatible with mammalian DNA.

11) A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using
A) RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene.
B) a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
C) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA.
D) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product.
E) DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that codes for a particular polypeptide.

12) Why are yeast cells frequently used as hosts for cloning? A) they easily form colonies
B) they can remove exons from mRNA. C) they do not have plasmids.
D) they are eukaryotic cells
E) only yeast cells allow the gene to be cloned

13) The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in
A) recombinant plasmids of bacteria.
B) recombinant viral RNA.
C) individual wells.
D) DNA-RNA hybrids
E) radioactive eukaryotic cells

14) How does a genomic library differ from a cDNA library?
A) A genomic library contains only noncoding sequences, whereas a cDNA library
contains only coding sequences.
B) A genomic library varies, dependent on the cell type used to make it, whereas the
content of a cDNA library does not.
C) A genomic library can be made using a restriction enzyme and DNA ligase only,
whereas a cDNA library requires both of these as well as reverse transcriptase and
DNA polymerase.
D) The genomic library can be replicated but not transcribed.
E) The genomic library contains only the genes that can be expressed in the cell.

15) Yeast artificial chromosomes contain which of the following elements?
A) centromere only
B) telomeres only
C) origin of replication only
D) centromeres and telomeres only
E) centromere, telomeres, and an origin of replication

16) Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR?
1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA.
2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double stranded target
DNA.
3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added.
4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA.
A) 2, 1, 4
B) 1, 3, 2, 4
C) 3,4,1,2
D) 3, 4, 2
E) 2, 3, 4

17) A researcher needs to clone a sequence of part of a eukaryotic genome in order to express the sequence and to modify the polypeptide product. She would be able to satisfy these requirements by using which of the following vectors?
A) a bacterial plasmid
B) BAC to accommodate the size of the sequence
C) a modified bacteriophage
D) a human chromosome
E) a YAC with appropriate cellular enzymes

18) A student wishes to clone a sequence of DNA of ~200 kb. Which vector would be appropriate?
A) a plasmid
B) a typical bacteriophage
C) a BAC
D) a plant virus
E) a large polypeptide

19) The first cell whose entire genome was sequenced was which of the following?
A) H. influenzae in 1995
B) H. sapiens in 2001
C) rice in 1955
D) tobacco mosaic virus
E) HIV in 1998

20) Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is most important because
A) it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a ʺbetterʺ nematode, resistant to disease.
B) it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about.
C) the nematode is a good animal model for trying out cures for viral illness.
D) a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode is likely to have
a closely related function in vertebrates.
E) a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to have
acquired the introns from higher organisms.

21) To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following methods?
A) the shotgun approach
B) electroporation followed by recombination
C) introducing a plasmid into the cell
D) infecting the mouse cell with a Ti plasmid
E) transcription and translation

22) The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that
A) plasmids are unable to replicate in cells.
B) only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a
YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell.
C) YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than ordinary plasmids can.
D) YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but
plasmids cannot.
E) all of the above

23) Which of the following produces multiple identical copies of a gene for basic research or for large-scale production of a gene product?
A) restriction enzymes
B) gene cloning
C) DNA ligase
D) gel electrophoresis
E) reverse transcriptase

24) Which of the following seals the sticky ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA?
A) restriction enzymes
B) gene cloning
C) DNA ligase
D) gel electrophoresis
E) reverse transcriptase

25) Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?
A) restriction enzymes
B) gene cloning
C) DNA ligase
D) gel electrophoresis
E) reverse transcriptase

26) Which of the following cuts DNA molecules at specific locations?
A) restriction enzymes
B) gene cloning
C) DNA ligase
D) gel electrophoresis
E) reverse transcriptase

27) Which of the following separates molecules by movement due to size and electrical charge? A) restriction enzymes
B) gene cloning
C) DNA ligase
D) gel electrophoresis
E) reverse transcriptase

28) Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process? A) filtering
B) centrifugation
C) gel electrophoresis
D) PCR
E) electron microscopy

29) In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done?
A) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis.
B) The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix.
C) The probe must be hybridized with the fragment.
D) Only A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.

30) Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?
A) altering the nucleotide sequence of the DNA fragment
B) methylating the cytosine bases within the DNA fragment
C) increasing the length of the DNA fragment D) decreasing the length of the DNA fragment
E) neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment

31) DNA fragments from a gel are transferred to a nitrocellulose paper during the procedure called Southern blotting. What is the purpose of transferring the DNA from a gel to a nitrocellulose paper?
A) to attach the DNA fragments to a permanent substrate B) to separate the two complementary DNA strands
C) to transfer only the DNA that is of interest
D) to prepare the DNA for digestion with restriction enzymes
E) to separate out the PCRs

32) RFLP analysis can be used to distinguish between alleles based on differences in which of the following?
A) restriction enzyme recognition sites between the alleles
B) the amount of DNA amplified from the alleles during PCR
C) the ability of the alleles to be replicated in bacterial cells D) the proteins expressed from the alleles
E) the ability of nucleic acid probes to hybridize to the alleles

33) The segment of DNA shown in Figure 20.2 has restriction sites I and II, which create restriction fragments A, B, and C. Which of the gels produced by electrophoresis shown below best represents the separation and identity of these fragments?
A) ABC
B) CAB
C) BAC
D) CAB
E) BAC

34) Which of the following procedures would produce RFLPs?
A) incubating a mixture of single-stranded DNA from two closely related species
B) incubating DNA nucleotides with DNA polymerase
C) incubating DNA with restriction enzymes
D) incubating RNA with DNA nucleotides and reverse transcriptase
E) incubating DNA fragments with ʺsticky endsʺ with ligase

35) Dideoxyribonucleotide chain-termination is a method of
A) cloning DNA.
B) sequencing DNA.
C) digesting DNA.
D) synthesizing DNA.
E) separating DNA fragments.

36) DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they
A) can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome.
B) can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells.
C) allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at
once.
D) allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time.
E) dramatically enhance the efficiency of restriction enzymes.

37) Which was developed by a British researcher and causes DNA sequences to be transferred to a membrane and identified with a probe?
A) Southern blotting B) Northern blotting
C) Western blotting D) Eastern blotting
E) RT-PCR

38) Which describes the transfer of polypeptide sequences to a membrane to analyze gene expression?
A) Southern blotting B) Northern blotting
C) Western blotting D) Eastern blotting
E) RT-PCR

39) Which uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA followed by amplification?
A) Southern blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Western blotting
D) Eastern blotting
E) RT-PCR

40) RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of mRNA. For which of the following might it more possibly be useful?
A) to raise the rate of production of a needed digestive enzyme
B) to decrease the production from a harmful gain-of-function mutated gene
C) to destroy an unwanted allele in a homozygous individual
D) to form a knockout organism that will not pass the deleted sequence to its progeny
E) to raise the concentration of a desired protein

41) A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell. In order to have the mutated sequence disable the function of the gene, what must then occur?
A) recombination resulting in replacement of the wild type with the mutated gene
B) use of a microarray to verify continued expression of the original gene
C) replication of the cloned gene using a bacterial plasmid
D) transcription of the cloned gene using a BAC
E) attachment of the mutated gene to an existing mRNA to be translated

42) Which of the following techniques used to analyze gene function depends on the specificity of DNA base complementarity?
A) Northern blotting
B) use of RNAi
C) in vitro mutagenesis
D) in situ hybridization
E) restriction fragment analysis