microbio 8

Allolactose
What is the inducer molecule in the lac operon?
Allolactose
Glucose
Repressor proteins
Lactose
Galactose
The operator region
With which genetic region does the repressor protein interact?
lacY
The operator region
lacZ
The regulatory gene
The promoter region
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The operator region
With which genetic region does the repressor protein interact?
lacY
The operator region
lacZ
The regulatory gene
The promoter region
the repressor proteins bind to the operator.
When the cell is not in the presence of lactose,

the repressor proteins are inactivated.
no transcription of the regulatory genes occurs.
the repressor proteins bind to the operator.
transcription of the structural genes occurs.

To code for enzymes involved in catabolizing lactose.
What is the basic function of the lac operon?
To code for enzymes involved in synthesizing lactose.
To produce lactose when none is present
To produce glucose when none is available
To code for enzymes involved in catabolizing lactose.
The promoter
According to the animation, to what genetic element does the RNA polymerase bind?

The promoter
The operator
The repressor protein
The repressor mRNA

DNA is flexible.
What characteristic of DNA allows two connected DNA polymerases to synthesize both the leading and lagging strands?

DNA is flexible.
DNA is antiparallel.
DNA has a helical shape.
DNA is double-stranded.

They link the leading strand DNA polymerase and the lagging strand DNA polymerase together.
What is the function of the connector proteins?

They link the leading strand DNA polymerase and the lagging strand DNA polymerase together.
They enable one parental DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand to be held together.
They allow DNA synthesis to occur in the 3′ to 5′ direction.
They produce the Okazaki fragments.

Leading strand
Which DNA strand is synthesized continuously?

Neither the leading nor the lagging strand is synthesized continuously.
The leading and lagging strands are both synthesized continuously.
Lagging strand
Leading strand

Lagging strand, DNA ligase, and discontinuous
Which of the following are terms associated with Okazaki fragments?

DNA ligase
Discontinuous
Lagging strand
Lagging strand, DNA ligase, and discontinuous

The synthesis is moving in the opposite direction from the replication fork.
Why is the DNA synthesis of the lagging strand considered discontinuous?

DNA synthesis on the lagging strand occurs 3′ to 5′.
The lagging strand only requires one primer instead of multiple primers.
The lagging strand only produces single-stranded DNA molecules.
The synthesis is moving in the opposite direction from the replication fork.

The promoter
What is the initial target of RNA polymerase?

The terminator region
The promoter
The template DNA

template strand of DNA.
RNA polymerase is guided by the

coding strand of DNA.
RNA strand.
template strand of DNA.

stem loop.
RNA that has hydrogen bonded to itself forms a

stem loop.
terminator sequence.
termination protein.
promoter sequence.

Increase the level of transcription
How would one increase the concentration of a particular polypeptide in a cell?

Increase the amount of DNA
Increase the concentration of promoters
Increase the level of transcription

5′ to 3′
During elongation, how is the RNA synthesized?

5′ to 3′
Right to left
Left to right
3′ to 5′

P site
During the initiation step of translation, the fMet charged tRNA assembles in which site of the ribosome?

A site
P site
E site

The anticodon on the tRNA base pairs to the codon on the mRNA.
How does the ribosome know if the entering charged tRNA is correct?

The preceding amino acid will not permit it to enter the A site.
The anticodon on the tRNA base pairs to the codon on the mRNA.
The incorrect tRNA does not fit into the A site.

In the P and E sites
Where would one find an uncharged tRNA molecule in a ribosome?

In the A, P, and E sites
In the A and P sites
In the A site
In the P site
In the E site
In the P and E sites

A peptide bond
What kind of bond is formed when two amino acids join together?
When a protein called a release factor enters and binds to the A site
How is translation terminated?

When a protein called a release factor enters and binds to the A site
When the ribosome runs out of the mRNA
When the A, P, and E sites are all filled
When there are no more charged tRNA molecules

One in every billion nucleotides replicated.
What is considered to be the average natural mutation rate that occurs during DNA replication?

One in every million nucleotides replicated.
One in every ten thousand nucleotides replicated.
One in every trillion nucleotides replicated.
One in every billion nucleotides replicated.

silent mutation.
A mutation that affects the genotype of the organism but not the phenotype is called a

nonsense mutation.
missense mutation.
silent mutation.
frameshift mutation.

frameshift mutation.
A base insertion or deletion in the translated region of the gene may lead to

nonsense mutation.
missense mutation.
silent mutation.
frameshift mutation.

nonsense mutation.
A base substitution that changes a codon coding for an amino acid to a stop codon is called a

frameshift mutation.
missense mutation.
silent mutation.
nonsense mutation.

One out of every three mutations
How frequently do silent mutations occur?

One out of every billion mutations
One out of every three mutations
Half of all mutations
One out of every million mutations

Transduction transfers DNA from the chromosome of one cell to another.
What is unique about transduction compared to normal bacteriophage infection?

Transduction transfers DNA from the chromosome of one cell to another.
The bacteriophage takes fragments of the cell with it during transduction.
The bacteriophage does not erupt from an infected cell during transduction.

Generalized transduction is initiated during lytic cycle of a virulent bacteriophage; specialized transduction is initiated during the lysogenic cycle of a temperate bacteriophage.
How is generalized transduction different from specialized transduction?

Generalized transduction is initiated during lytic cycle of a virulent bacteriophage; specialized transduction is initiated during the lysogenic cycle of a temperate bacteriophage.
Specialized transduction uses animal viruses instead of bacteriophage.
Only one specific host gene is transferred in both specialized transduction and generalized transduction.
Generalized transduction is initiated by a lysogenic bacteriophage; specialized transduction is initiated by a lytic phage.

contains fragments of the host chromosome instead of the viral genome.
A transducing phage

contains fragments of the host chromosome instead of the viral genome.
is a lysogenic bacteriophage.
has a viral coat made of host proteins.
cannot infect new host cells.

the DNA from the previous host can recombine with the new host chromosome.
When a transducing phage interacts with a new host cell,

it will cause the new cell to produce more transducing phage.
the DNA from the previous host can recombine with the new host chromosome.
the new host cell will be lysed.

Hfr strains have the F plasmid integrated into the chromosome.
How does an F+ cell differ from an Hfr cell?

F+ cells have no plasmids.
Hfr strains can no longer reproduce.
Hfr cells cannot perform conjugation.
Hfr strains have the F plasmid integrated into the chromosome.

Conjugation is typically disrupted before the fertility factor can be transferred.
Why does conjugation between an Hfr strain and an F- strain not result in two Hfr strains?

Hfr strains lack fertility factor.
The cell membranes between the two strands never fuse together.
Conjugation is typically disrupted before the fertility factor can be transferred.
The transferred genes typically recombine with the recipient chromosome

Ability to synthesize sex pili, presence of a fertility factor, and ability to mate with an F- cell.
Which of the following is a characteristic of an F+ cell?

Ability to mate with an F- cell
Presence of a fertility factor
Ability to synthesize sex pili, presence of a fertility factor, and ability to mate with an F- cell.
Ability to synthesize sex pi

It acquires new, potentially beneficial genes from the Hfr strain.
What benefit does the F- strain receive from mating with an Hfr strain?

It picks up a fertility factor.
It can now produce sex pili.
It acquires new, potentially beneficial genes from the Hfr strain.
It becomes an F+ cell.

oxidative phosphorylation
In the generation of ATP, energy is released when electrons are passed to a series of electron acceptors and finally to oxygen or another inorganic compound. What is this process called?

oxidative phosphorylation
photophosphorylation
catabolism
substrate-level phosphorylation

to regenerate NAD+ from NADH
What is the purpose of fermentation?

to generate energy in the absence of oxygen
to regenerate NAD+ from NADH
to produce ATP
to be an alternative to glycolysis

chemoheterotroph
Which type of metabolic diversity contains most pathogens?

chemoautotroph
chemoheterotroph
photoheterotroph
photoautotroph

oxygen
You have just started brewing beer at home, and your first batch is now ready. You used the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisia, which can perform both aerobic cellular respiration and fermentation. When you test the beer, you determine that the alcohol content is almost zero. What could have been present in the fermentation reaction apparatus that caused this problem?

carbon dioxide
glucose
oxygen
pyruvic acid

They compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active site.
How does a competitive inhibitor slow enzyme catalysis?

They bind to the substrate.
They produce products toxic to the enzymes.
They degrade the substrate.
They compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active site.

Competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme’s substrate.
What enables competitive inhibitors to bind to a specific enzyme?

Competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme’s substrate.
Competitive inhibitors cover the entire surface of an enzyme.
Competitive inhibitors form unique covalent bonds with enzyme structures.
Competitive inhibitors have unique sugars that are attracted to the enzyme.

PABA will not be catalyzed.
If high amounts of sulfanilamide are in the presence of an enzyme whose substrate is PABA, what outcome is expected?

PABA will not be catalyzed.
Sulfanilamide products will be in higher concentration.
PABA products will increase in concentration.
The substrate will destroy the inhibitor.

Competitive inhibitors decrease the rate of enzyme activity.
Which of the following statements regarding competitive inhibitors is true?

The inhibitor will destroy the substrate.
Competitive inhibitors decrease the rate of enzyme activity.
The inhibitor will destroy the enzyme.
The inhibitor will degrade the substrate.

Energy is required to disrupt a substrate’s stable electron configuration.
Why do all enzymatic reactions need activation energy?

Energy allows only the substrate to bind.
Energy is required to disrupt a substrate’s stable electron configuration.
Energy is needed for the enzyme to find its substrate.
Energy is required by an enzyme so that it can be reused.

Enzymes speed up the chemical reactions in living cells.
What is meant by the statement “Enzymes are biological catalysts”?

Enzymes produce biological organisms.
Enzymes speed up the chemical reactions in living cells.
Enzymes are products of biological systems.
Enzymes produce products useful for biology.

Enzymes decrease the amount of activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur.
Why are enzymes important to biological systems?

Enzymes increase the energy barrier required of chemical reactions.
Enzymes decrease the amount of activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur.
Enzymes are reuseable.
Enzymes prevent unwanted chemical by-products from forming.

a redox reaction.
A reaction that involves the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is referred to as

a redox reaction.
an oxidation reaction.
a reduction reaction.

the donor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized.
During an oxidation reaction,

the donor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized.
the donor molecule gains an electron and becomes oxidized.
the acceptor molecule gains an electron and becomes oxidized.
the acceptor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized.

The electron acceptor’s net charge decreases.
Why is reduction the term used to describe the gain of an electron?

The number of molecules in the reaction decreases.
The amount of energy in the molecule decreases.
The electron acceptor’s net charge decreases.
The electron acceptor gets smaller.

Redox reactions involve an oxidation reaction coupled with a reduction reaction.
Which of the following statements regarding redox reactions is true?

Redox reactions involve an oxidation reaction coupled with a reduction reaction.
No metabolic reactions are redox reactions.
Redox reactions are only seen in the electron transport chain.
Redox reactions must either be oxidizing reactions or reducing reactions.

phosphorus used for production of carbohydrates.
Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?

magnesium and potassium required as cofactors for enzymes
sulfur used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin
phosphorus used for production of carbohydrates.
phosphorus incorporated into nucleic acids
nitrogen needed for amino acid synthesis

They cut DNA at sites, called recognition sites, that have specific nucleotide sequences.
How do restriction enzymes cut DNA sequences?

They cut DNA at sites, called recognition sites, that have specific nucleotide sequences.
They cut DNA at sequences that have lots of adenine bases.
They have the ability to cut DNA randomly.

To insert a desirable gene, remove an undesirable gene, or replace a defective gene with a functioning gene
In general, how might recombinant DNA technology be used to prevent a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in a single gene?

To insert a desirable gene, remove an undesirable gene, or replace a defective gene with a functioning gene
To insert a desirable gene
To remove an undesirable gene
To replace a defective gene with a working gene

DNA ligase
Which of the following attaches the target gene to a desired location?

Plasmids
Restriction enzymes
DNA ligase
Chromosomal DNA

It can be copied, transcribed, and translated into a desired protein.
Why would a recombinant DNA molecule be inserted into a host cell?

Restriction enzymes can only be used inside of a cell.
Plasmids cannot be isolated outside of a host cell.
It can protect the recombinant DNA.
It can be copied, transcribed, and translated into a desired protein.

a culture of genetically identical cells
Which of the following best describes a clone in the context of genetic modification procedures?

a cell that is genetically identical to its parent
an identical copy of the gene of interest
a vector, once it contains a copy of the gene of interest
a culture of genetically identical cells

Cells usually won’t copy an isolated gene sequence.
Which of the following best describes why a vector is used in genetic modification procedures?

Cells usually won’t copy an isolated gene sequence.
The clone must be able to produce proteins from the rDNA containing the gene of interest.
The vector ensures that the clone remains pure.
The gene of interest must be isolated from adjacent genes.

Producing a clone generates many copies of the gene of interest.
Recombinant DNA techniques typically involve generating a clone. Why?

A clone is generated when a cell takes up the vector.
Producing a clone generates many copies of the gene of interest.
A clone is used to get the gene of interest into a suitable cell.
Recombining the clone produces the recombinant DNA.

PCR creates large amounts of DNA from minute source quantities.
Why is PCR a valuable technique?

PCR creates large amounts of DNA from minute source quantities.
PCR stimulates transcription of genes (DNA).
PCR harvests small quantities of DNA.
PCR separates DNA from crude mixtures of other biomolecules.

To provide a structure from which DNA can be synthesized
Which of the following best describes the purpose of primers in PCR?

To provide a structure from which DNA can be synthesized
To activate DNA polymerase to replicate DNA
To separate double-stranded DNA into single strands
To provide a template for free nucleotides

Subjects samples to temperature changes
What does a thermocycler do?

Adds reagents to facilitate the PCR run
Monitors the synthesis of DNA
Purifies DNA from a crude sample
Subjects samples to temperature changes

after exposure to 94∘C
In PCR, it is important to use Taq DNA polymerase, as opposed to other DNA polymerases. This is because Taq is capable of synthesizing DNA _________.

from user-provided DNA and primers
after exposure to 94∘C
at 94∘C
at 55∘C

To allow primers to bind to the DNA template strands
After the 94∘C step, why must the thermocycler reduce the temperature to 55∘C?

To allow primers to bind to the DNA template strands
To separate the DNA template strands
To optimize DNA polymerase activity
To allow the DNA template strands to bind to each other

DNA polymerase would synthesize DNA more slowly.
Suppose the thermocycler is INCORRECTLY programmed to omit the 72∘C step in each cycle of an otherwise normal PCR run. Which of the following would most likely occur?

DNA polymerase would be active at 94∘C.
Primers would NOT bind to DNA template strands.
DNA template strands would bind to each other.
DNA polymerase would synthesize DNA more slowly.

Each cycle of PCR doubles the amount of DNA synthesized, but the number of copies starts out small. Numerous cycles are required to produce a sufficient number of copies.
Which of the following best describes why PCR protocols contain numerous cycles of the denaturation/annealing/extension steps?

The denaturation step of each cycle only separates some of the source DNA. By performing numerous cycles, PCR generates copies of all the target sequences.
Each cycle of PCR incorporates some of the included primers into amplicons. Numerous cycles of PCR are required to ensure all primers are incorporated.
Each cycle of PCR doubles the amount of DNA synthesized, but the number of copies starts out small. Numerous cycles are required to produce a sufficient number of copies.
Each cycle of PCR allows Taq polymerase to partially synthesize the target sequence. Numerous cycles are necessary for the target sequence to be fully copied.

Genetically engineered crops have an advantageous gene from another organism inserted into their genome.
Bt crops, including potatoes and cotton, are genetically engineered using laboratory techniques. Which of the following utilizes recombinant DNA technology to produce advantageous traits in the crops that are produced?

Genetically engineered crops have natural characteristics that give them a genetic advantage.
Genetically engineered crops have a genetic advantage because the parent strains have advantageous traits.
Genetically engineered crops have an advantageous gene from another organism inserted into their genome.
Genetically engineered crops naturally produce larger plants and bountiful products.

Insects that normally destroy non-toxin-producing crops will be killed when they eat plants that do produce the toxin.
Bt crops are engineered in the lab to produce Bt toxins due to the presence of a bacterial gene from B. thuringiensis. Why is it advantageous for the plants to produce the Bt toxin?

The Bt toxin will protect the plant from pathogenic bacteria.
The plant will release chemicals that will repel all nearby insects.
People who eat the food produced by a Bt crop will be resistant to bacterial infections.
Insects that normally destroy non-toxin-producing crops will be killed when they eat plants that do produce the toxin.

The Bt toxin gene is isolated and inserted into a Ti plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens. The engineered Ti plasmid is taken up by a bacterium that infects the cotton plant.
Which of the following best explains how scientists are able to introduce the bacterial gene for Bt toxin into the cotton plant genome?

The bacterial gene for Bt toxin is isolated, and the DNA is put into tiny bullets (like BB’s) that are “shot” into the cotton plant using a gene gun.
The Bt toxin gene is isolated and inserted into a Ti plasmid from Agrobacterium tumefaciens. The engineered Ti plasmid is taken up by a bacterium that infects the cotton plant.
A virus is engineered to contain the Bt toxin gene. This virus is then used to infect the plant and pass on the gene.
The Bt toxin gene is added to water that is sprayed on the cotton plants. The gene is taken up through the roots of the plant.

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