Unit 4 Questions Biology

The prospects for developing a vaccine for the common cold are not promising because
A.
many different viruses can cause the common cold
B.
there would be virtually no candidates for such a vaccine
C.
of the antigenic shift phenomenon
D.
funds for this type of research are not available
E.
viruses cannot be cultivated in tissue culture medium

How is HPS (hantavirus pulmonary syndrome) treated?
A.
with antibiotics
B.
with oxygen therapy
C.
with chemotherapy
D.
with electrolyte and fluid replacement
E.
none of the choices is correct

Penicillin is useless for the treatment of primary atypical pneumonia because the causative organisms
A.
develop resistance rapidly
B.
are Gram-negative
C.
have no cell wall
D.
grow only within the cells
E.
possess penicillin-resistant PBPs

None of the following applies to adenovirus URT infection except
A.
attaches to the nasopharyngeal mucosa by fimbriae.
B.
fatalities are rare and recovery is within 1-3 weeks
C.
it persists and causes a latent infection
D.
transmission is through an enveloped viral particle
E.
a virulence factor includes a capsule

This is normally a disease of infants and so we inoculate infants in our country. However, because most of us never get a booster shot, we are seeing more cases of this disease in college students and adults. What is this disease?
A.
diphtheria
B.
whooping cough
C.
scarlet fever
D.
rheumatic fever
E.
shingles

M protein

BCG

Tuberculin test

Streptococci: alpha hemolytic

Meningococcus

Pneumococcus

Meningitis

Tuberculosis

Legionnaires’ disease

Strep throat

Scarlet fever

Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of
A.
oak trees and grape vines
B.
the winter months
C.
the reproductive organs
D.
soldiers and other military personnel
E.
the lungs

The respiratory syncytial virus takes its name from the
A.
involvement of the liver tissue
B.
formation of giant cells in tissue culture cells
C.
involvement of the nervous system
D.
lysis of the red blood cells which accompanies the disease
E.
grouped mass of virions within a single viral envelope

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is aided by
A.
a positive catalase test
B.
observation of cells with bipolar staining in the blood
C.
a posotive Weil-Felix test
D.
a skin rash on the palms and soles
E.
recovery of acid-fast rods from the sputum

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following diseases except
A.
strep throat
B.
scarlet fever
C.
pneumococcal pneumonia
D.
glomerulitis
E.
All of the choices are correct

Dermatophytosis refers to fungal disease
A.
of the hair, skin, and nails.
B.
that resists antibiotic treatment.
C.
which is spread by arthropods.
D.
that accompanies predisposing factors.
E.
that spreads to the internal organs.

How can you prevent warts from spreading?
A.
Maintain good hygiene.
B.
Do not pick at them.
C.
Do not share towels with someone who has them.
D.
All of the choices are correct.
E.
Avoid shaving over them.

Which one of the following is not associated with measles?
A.
Koplik spots
B.
a red skin rash
C.
a rare brain disease called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
D.
an RNA paramyxovirus
E.
inflammation of the salivary glands

Which one of the following conditions is not associated with congenital rubella syndrome?

A.
Heart defects
B.
Encephalitis
C.
Viral excretion in body fluids for months post-birth
D.
Cataracts
E.
Deafness

Staphylococcus aureus is associated with
A.
burn infections
B.
venereal disease
C.
urinary tract infections
D.
toxic shock syndrome
E.
gingivitis

Which one of the following is not associated with Streptococcus pyogenes?
A.
Food poisoning
B.
Glomerulonephritis
C.
Scarlet fever
D.
Necrotizing fasciitis
E.
Puerperal fever

Tinea diseases are superficial cutaneous mycoses caused by several different genera of fungi. Each of the following is identified in this chapter as causing tinea except
A.
Trichophyton
B.
Microsporum
C.
Epidermophyton
D.
Emmonsiella

Fifth disease is accompanied by
A.
yellowing of the skin resulting from seepage of bile from the liver
B.
a fiery red rash on the cheeks resembling a slap
C.
infection of the kidneys and an interruption of urine production
D.
substantial lesion formation in the brain tissue and meninges
E.
itching, bad odor, patchy areas of hair loss

Carbuncle

Lyme disease

Chicken pox

Parvovirus

Rubella

Warts

Tinea pedis

Dimorphic

Ringworm

Tinea versicolor

HPV

Measles

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Clostridium tetani

Treponema species

Sporothrix schenkii

Pasteurella multocida

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all of the following except
A.
external ear infection.
B.
serious infection in lung tissues of cystic fibrosis patients.
C.
severe nosocomial infection in burn patients.
D.
diarrheal illness.
E.
skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges.

All of the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections except
A.
the catheterization of patients can introduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infections.
B.
they often form an endogenous source.
C.
they typically occur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices.
D.
the organism is coagulase negative
E.
the organism produces a large number of tissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

Actinomyces israelii
A.
can be transmitted by respiratory droplets.
B.
causes most cases in the immunocompromised.
C.
can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis.
D.
lives in the soil.
E.
are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

The toxins produced by tetanus bacilli
A.
induce a cytokine storm
B.
are endotoxins
C.
are produced under aerobic conditions
D.
cause paralysis
E.
induce uncontrolled contractions of the muscles

Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenkii?
A.
causes superficial cutaneous infection
B.
is dimorphic
C.
often transmitted by soil-contaminated thorns
D.
lives in the soil
E.
causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene?
A.
debridement of the wound
B.
hyperbaric chamber
C.
amputation
D.
rigorous cleansing of deep wounds
E.
All of the choices are correct

Rose gardener’s disease

Rat bite fever

Lockjaw

Flesh-eating disease

Toxic shock syndrome

Lumpy jaw

Clenched-fist injury

Cat scratch fever

Myonecrosis

Defenses of the GI tract against pathogens include
A.
Mucus, acid, and saliva
B.
Secretory IgA and enzymes
C.
Peristalsis
D.
GALT
E.
All of the choices are GI tract defenses

Hepatitis C

Norovirus

Salmonella enterica

Vibrio cholerae

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
A.
Gram negative
B.
curved rods
C.
lives in the stomach
D.
produces enterotoxin that causes diarrhea
E.
produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

Cyst formation by certain protozoa permits
A.
survival in the arthropod vector.
B.
the use of carbon dioxide as an energy source.
C.
sexual reproduction.
D.
enhanced reproduction by the protozoan.
E.
passage through the stomach acid and other environmental stresses.

When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes
A.
gangrene
B.
hypotension
C.
swelling of the legs
D.
jaundice
E.
shock

An enormous number of cholera bacilli must be present in contaminated food for infection to be established because
A.
antigenic variation to a harmless form will occur rapidly in the body.
B.
cholera bacilli are susceptible to the effects of bacteriophages.
C.
a large amount of toxin must be produced in the intestine.
D.
most will be destroyed by the stomach acid.
E.
they must be exposed to an anaerobic environment to grow vegetatively from their spores.

All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except
A.
lysozyme in saliva
B.
refined sugar
C.
fluoride
D.
antibodies in saliva
E.
genetics

Several pathogenic organisms are associated with foods. These include typhoid bacilli, amoebic cysts, and hepatitis viruses. All of these causative agents of disease may accumulate in
A.
beef
B.
shellfish, such as clams
C.
salami
D.
dairy products
E.
eggs

All of the following will kill Giardia except
A.
boiling.
B.
ozone.
C.
iodine.
D.
chlorine in typical drinking water.
E.
All of the methods listed will kill Giardia.

Which is mismatched?
A.
Hepatitis E virus – self-limiting RNA virus
B.
Hepatitis C virus – RNA virus
C.
Hepatitis B virus – enveloped DNA virus
D.
Hepatitis A virus – nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA enterovirus
E.
Hepatitis D virus – defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV

All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except

A.
Due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease

B.
Involves Treponema spirochetes, Prevotella, and Fusobacterium

C.
Common in crystal methamphetamine users

D.
Very communicable

E.
Associated with severe pain, bleeding, pseudomembrane formation, and necrosis

Amebiasis symptoms include
A.
bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.
B.
fever, swollen lymph notes, and joint pain.
C.
chills, fever, and sweating.
D.
increased urinary frequency with pain, and vaginal discharge.
E.
sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all of the following except it
A.
only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
B.
is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated undercooked food, especially hamburger.
C.
causes a bloody diarrhea.
D.
has a reservoir of cattle intestines.
E.
may go on to cause, in some cases, hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure’

Salmonella are
A.
coliforms
B.
motile
C.
Gram positive rods
D.
lactose fermenters
E.
All of the choices are correct

All of the following characteristics apply to Salmonella serotypes except
A.
they can cause skin infections.
B.
they are Gram-negative rods.
C.
they can be transmitted by food.
D.
they commonly infect chickens and turkeys.
E.
they are able to survive for months in water and soil.

Norwalk agent is
A.
a calcivirus
B.
transmitted orofecally
C.
sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish
D.
A common enteric virus of gastroenteritis
E.
All of the choices are correct

Herpes simplex virus-1

Infection due to Haemophilus ducreyi may be identified by the isolation of
A.
staphylococci from skin lesions.
B.
Gram-positive rods from the feces.
C.
diplococci from the spinal fluid.
D.
spirochetes from gumma lesions.
E.
Gram-negative rods from genital papules.

Warts are caused by
A.
Enveloped RNA viruses
B.
Enveloped DNA viruses
C.
Non-enveloped RNA viruses
D.
Bacteria
E.
Non-enveloped DNA viruses

A leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is
A.
Gonorrhea
B.
Chlamydia
C.
Syphilis
D.
Genital herpes
E.
HIV

Herpes simplex I
A.
Is exclusive to oral mucosa
B.
Is exclusive to genitourinary tract
C.
Confers immunity to Herpes simplex II
D.
Is cleared by acylovir
E.
None of these choices is correct

Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract
A.
can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease.
B.
is the causative agent in common yeast infections.
C.
is indicative of underlying infection.
D.
is protective.
E.
can contribute to STDs.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota from the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?

Vaginal pH is neutral

Sustained in part by estrogen-caused glycogen release

Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid

Candida albicans present in small amounts

Secretory IgA provides protection

Infection of the urinary bladder is called
A.
Urethritis
B.
Vaginitis
C.
Pyelonephritis
D.
Cystitis
E.
PID

Which of the following are characteristics that can be utilized to distinguish between vaginitis and vaginosis
A.
Causative agent
B.
Presence of vaginal inflammation
C.
Presence of discharge
D.
All of the choices are correct

Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?
A.
IgG
B.
Lysozyme
C.
IgA
D.
Mucus secretions
E.
Flushing action of urine

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their
A.
Respiratory secretions
B.
Feces
C.
Saliva
D.
Urine
E.
Blood

Chlamydial urethritis

Chancroid

Syphilis

Gonorrhea

A human form of BSE is called
A.
TSE
B.
scrapie
C.
kuru
D.
wasting disease
E.
variant CJD

Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
A.
Most common causative organism is Entamoeba histolytica
B.
Involves infections of both the brain and meninges
C.
Modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water
D.
Most common causative organism is Naegleria fowleri
E.
Treatment for Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective

Abnormal prion proteins are designated as
A.
Scrapie^sc
B.
Priods
C.
PrP^p
D.
PrP^c
E.
PrP^sc

The incubation period for rabies may depend upon
A.
the type of arthropod that bit the individual
B.
the amount of virus introduced to the bite wound
C.
the type of animal that bit the individual
D.
the immune status of the individual
E.
the strain of virus introduced to the bite wound

What brain defense restricts
substances from entering the brain by the vascular system?
A.
Macrophages
B.
Cranium
C.
Blood-brain barrier
D.
Meninges
E.
Microglia

Cryptococcus neoformans is a
A.
Prion
B.
Fungus
C.
Helminth
D.
Bacteria
E.
Virus

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a
A.
Bacteria
B.
Protozoan
C.
Virus
D.
Helminth
E.
All of the choices are correct

he normal biota of the CNS consists of
A.
Neisseria meningitidis
B.
The CNS has no normal biota
C.
Herpes simplex II
D.
Streptococcus agalactiae
E.
Herpes simplex I

Rabies

Neisseria meningitidis

Listeria monocytogenes

Polio

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except
A.
oral bacteria are introduced to the blood via dental procedures
B.
it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage.
C.
signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.
D.
bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation.
E.
it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing
A.
Brucellosis
B.
Plague
C.
Malaria
D.
Chickungunya
E.
All of the choices are correct

Franciscella tularensis

Epstein-Barr virus

Yellow fever

Yersinia pestis

All arboviral infections involve
A.
arthropod vectors.
B.
congenital infection.
C.
rodent vectors.
D.
birds as the primary reservoir.
E.
All of the choices are correct.

The malaria attack coincides with
A.
entry of the parasites to the liver.
B.
the release of parasites from infected red blood cells.
C.
the bite of the mosquito.
D.
a cytokine storm.
E.
destruction of the spleen in the body.

One of the distinctive characteristics of Yersinia pestis cells is
A.
acid-fast staining.
B.
capsule.
C.
spirochete cell type.
D.
production of polar endospores.
E.
bipolar staining.

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent

Plague

Brucellosis

Mononucleosis

Tularemia

Endocarditis

Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg?
A.
Transmitted by mosquitos
B.
There is no treatment
C.
Caused by filoviruses
D.
Transmitted by direct contact with body fluids
E.
Disruption of clotting factors

Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as “breakbone fever” because of the severe pain in bones?
A.
Ebola
B.
Marburg
C.
Dengue fever
D.
Yellow fever
E.
Lassa fever

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is
A.
Kaposi’s sarcoma
B.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C.
Leukemia
D.
Myeloma
E.
Melanoma

Clinical Latency

Acute retroviral syndrome

Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lethargy, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include
A.
vesicular lesions in oral mucosa.
B.
pocks on skin.
C.
sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.
D.
ulcerations in GI tract, pneumonitis, and retinitis.
E.
None of the choices is correct.

Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) has the following characteristics except
A.
it replicates in lymphatic and blood vessel epithelial cells.
B.
purple lesions result from cell proliferation and blood vessel formation.
C.
its genome integrates into the host cell DNA.
D.
it is a typically latent infection.
E.
it causes Kaposi’s sarcoma.

Documented transmission of HIV involves
A.
Mosquitoes
B.
Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood or blood products
C.
Respiratory droplets
D.
Contaminated food
E.
All of the choices are correct

Toxoplasma gondii

Cytomegalovirus

Mycobacterium avium

EBV (lymphoma)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Each of the following is true for Toxoplasma gondii except
A.
It is a nonflagellated parasite
B.
It is often fatal for AIDS patients
C.
Can cause stillbirth
D.
It has a narrow host range
E.
All of the choices are true

The retrovirus that leads to AIDS
A.
uses reverse transcriptase to convert DNA to RNA.
B.
contains RNA in its genome.
C.
multiplies only within the brain cells of the body.
D.
has no envelope.
E.
is a member of the herpesviridae.

Which one of the following symptoms is not associated with HIV infection?
A.
headache, tiredness
B.
skin rash.
C.
enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and groin
D.
painful ulcers of the gastrointestinal tract
E.
low-grade fever that remains for weeks or months at a time

Retroviruses have the following characteristics except
A.
Enveloped
B.
Reverse transcriptase
C.
Viral genes integrate into the host genome
D.
DNA genome
E.
Glycoprotein spikes

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
A.
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B.
Protease inhibitors
C.
Fusion inhibitors
D.
Integrase inhibitors
E.
All of the choices are correct

In late 2011, 200 cases were associated with an outbreak at a fundraiser in Los Angeles which took place at the Playboy Mansion. All individuals had symptoms of fever, chills, myalgia, malaise, and headaches. The source of the outbreak was shown to be the heating system for the hot tub and swimming pool.

Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes except:
A.
Can be controlled by viral lysis
B.
Can result in septicemia
C.
Possesses flagella
D.

Resistant to cold
E.
Penetrates alveolar macrophages

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is:
A.
Water and electrolyte replacement
B.
Antimicrobials
C.
Antitoxin
D.
Surgery
E.
None of the choices is correct

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except:
A.
it has a reservoir of cattle intestines
B.
it causes a bloody diarrhea
C.

it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
D.
it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger
E.
some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure

The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is:
A.
Retrovirus
B.
Rhinovirus
C.
Herpes simplex virus
D.
Coronavirus
E.
Adenovirus

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except:
A.
Pneumococcal pneumonia
B.
Otitis media
C.
Glomerulonephritis
D.
Scarlet fever
E.
Rheumatic fever

What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection?
A.
Nasal hairs
B.
Cilia
C.
Mucus
D.
Macrophages
E.
All of the choices are correct

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except:
A.
If virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed
B.
Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
C.
Transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water
D.
Can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever and nausea
E.
Caused by Poliovirus (genus Enterovirus)

Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called ________, or __________, a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain.
A.
Antigenic drift, antigenic shift
B.
Antigenic shift, antigenic drift
C.
Antigenic drift, antigenic drift
D.
Antigen resistance, antigen cooperation
E.
None of these

Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through:
A.
Parenteral entry
B.
Fomites
C.
Droplets
D.
Ingestion
E.
Casual contact

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except that it is:
A.
associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad spectrum antimicrobials
B.
a colitis that is a superinfection
C.
the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals
D.

due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
E.
often from an endogenous source

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is:
A.
Melanoma
B.
Leukemia
C.
Kaposi’s sarcoma
D.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
E.
Myeloma

The enzyme associated with the release of influenza virions from the infected cell is:
A.

Catalase
B.
Neuraminidase
C.
Hyaluronidase
D.
Kinase
E.
Reverse transcriptase

Which is incorrect about warts?
A.
Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites
B.
Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet
C.
Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal
D.
Are frequently cancerous
E.
Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)

The causative organism for mumps is:
A.
Morbillivirus
B.
Corynebacterium
C.
Vibrio
D.

Paramyxovirus
E.
Streptococcus pyogenes

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of:
A.
Clostridium botulinum
B.
Clostridium perfringens
C.
Clostridium difficile
D.
Clostridium tetani
E.
All of the choices are correct.

Which is incorrect about rabies?
A.
Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis
B.
Is a zoonotic disease
C.
Transmission can involve bites, scratches and inhalation
D.
Average incubation in human is 1 week
E.
Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats and canines are primary reservoirs

Which is true of viral conjunctivitis?
A.
Has a mucopurulent, milky discharge
B.
Caused by Moraxella
C.

Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhea
D.
Caused by adenoviruses
E.
Must be treated with topical and oral antibiotics

Which of the following is a viral hemorrhagic fever?
A.

Yellow fever
B.

Cat Scratch fever
C.
Rabbit fever
D.
Q fever
E.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever

The bubo of bubonic plague is due to:
A.
fluid build-up from pneumonia
B.
bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node
C.
septicemia resulting in disseminated intravascular coagulation and hemorrhaging
D.
erythrogenic toxin
E.
toxic shock syndrome toxin

Protective features of the skin include all of the following except:
A.
Keratinized surface
B.
Lysozyme
C.
High salt content
D.
Low pH
E.
Resident biota

A.
Can progress to a septicemia
B.
Patient has fever, headache, nausea, pneumonia
C.

Transmitted by respiratory droplets
D.
Severe internal hemorrhaging
E.
Caused by Yersinia pestis

Virulence factors of S. pyogenes include:
A.

Polysaccharides on the cell wall
B.
Lipoteichoic acid
C.
Spiky M-proteins
D.
Capsule to provide adherence
E.
All of the choices are correct

The normal biota of the CNS consists of:
A.

Neisseria meningitidis
B.

Herpes simplex I
C.

Herpes simplex II
D.
Streptococcus agalactiae
E.

The CNS has no normal biota

A.
Causes the most serious form of acute meningitis
B.
Common cause of bacterial pneumonia
C.
More easily transmitted in schools, day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks
D.

Virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease
E.
Causes formation of petechiae

The best defense against arboviruses is:
A.
Prophylactic rifampin
B.
Vector control
C.
Vaccination
D.
Prompt treatment with acyclovir
E.
All of the choices are correct

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent:
A.
Mononucleosis
B.
Endocarditis
C.
Plague
D.
Brucellosis
E.
Tularemia

When the center of a tubercle breaks down into a ________________, it gradually heals by calcification that forms a tuberculous cavity.
A.
Caseous necrosis
B.
Tertiary
C.
Miliary tubercle
D.
Granuloma
E.

Primary lesion

All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except:
A.
Associated with severe pain, bleeding, abscessed gums, and necrosis
B.
Most destructive of the periodontal diseases
C.
Very communicable
D.
Due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease
E.
Involves Treponema spirochete and other anaerobic bacteria

The paroxysms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are:
A.
Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis
B.
Fever, swollen lymph nodes and joint pain
C.
Bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea and weight loss
D.
Urinary frequency and pain and vaginal discharge
E.
Sore throat, low grade fever and swollen lymph nodes

The causative organism of whooping cough is:
A.
Haemophilus influenzae
B.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
C.
Bordetella pertussis
D.
Streptococcus pyogenes
E.
Staphyloccus aureus

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
A.
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B.
Protease inhibitors
C.
Fusion Inhibitors
D.
Integrase inhibitors
E.
All of the choices are correct

One virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes is the ability to:
A.

grow inside host cells
B.

release lactic acid
C.

form endospores
D.

lyse RBCs
E.

produce abundant, branching hyphae

Spongiform encephalopathies are:
A.
Associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain
B.
Chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system
C.
Caused by prions
D.
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, scrapie, and bovine spongiform encephalopathy
E.
All of the choices are correct

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori?
A.
Gram negative
B.
Lives in the stomach
C.
Curved rods
D.
Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea
E.
Produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

The cyclic bout of fever and chills in malaria are caused by:
A.
liver cell lysis
B.
white blood cell lysis
C.
red blood cell lysis
D.
neurological involvement
E.
None of the choices is correct

A.
Salivary glands
B.
Pancreas
C.
Large intestine
D.

Liver
E.
Small intestine

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:
A.

Cryptococcus neoformans
B.
Candida albicans
C.
Malassezia furfur
D.
Pneumocystis jiroveci
E.
None of the choices is correct

Symptoms of mono

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a:
A.
Bacteria
B.
Protozoan
C.
Virus
D.
Helminth
E.
All of the choices are correct

Bacteria which are suppurative or purulent and pus-forming are:
A.
pyrogenic
B.
paraplegic
C.
pyogenic
D.
pandemic
E.
parenteric

The causative agent of Lyme disease is:
A.
Bordetella pertussis
B.
Borrelia burgdorferi
C.

Ixodes scapularis
D.
Brucella melitensis
E.
Aedes aegypti

A common causative agent of acute endocarditis is:
A.

Staphylococcus aureus
B.
Listeria monocytogenes
C.
Candida albicans
D.
Neisseria gonorrhea
E.
All of the choices are correct.

A bacterial toxin that specifically targets intestinal mucous membrane cells.

The organism in which a parasite develops into its adult or sexually mature stage

Inflammation and necrosis of the liver, often the result of viral infection.

Conducive to the production or promotion of dental decay.

An increase in eosinophil concentration in the bloodstream, often in response to helminth infection.

Skin – parenteral via bite trauma

GI tract – via tainted meat product ingestion

GI tract – via contaminated water ingestion

Skin – penetration via hair follicle

GI tract – via saliva exchange

specific technique used for diagnosis

A 31 year old male presented to the local ER in late summer and immediately passed a large watery stool with “rice water” appearance. He then vomited several times and became slightly sweaty. After consulting the patient, it was determined he had just returned to U.S. from a 3 week long ecotourism trek to the Madre de Dios region of the Peruvian amazon. On the second day home, GI symptoms star

A 48-year-old Chinese national developed a sore throat while on a week-long trade mission in rural Haiti. Two days after he returned home to Chongquing, he visited a local hospital with complaints of a sore throat and difficulties in swallowing. He was treated with oral antibiotics but returned two days later with chills, sweating, difficulty swallowing and breathing, nausea, and vomiting. He had diminished breath sounds in the left lung, and radiographs confirmed pulmonary infiltrates, as well as enlargement of the epiglottis. Laryngoscopy revealed yellow exudates on the tonsils, posterior pharynx, and soft palate. He was admitted to the intensive care unit, treated with antibiotics and steroids but over the next 4 days became hypotensive with a low-grade fever. By the eighth day of illness, a chest radiograph showed infiltrates in the right and left lung bases, and a white exudate and a pseudomembrane was observed over the supraglottic structures.

Brucellosis

Plague

lyme disease

trypanosomiasis

mumps

A 41 year-old male firefighter was brought to the E.R. with third degree burns in 28% of his body. His vital signs were unstable blood pressure = 55/35; heart rate = 210 beats/min.; and respiratory rate = 40 breaths/min. He was deteriorating from circulatory failure. After his vital signs stabilized the patient was treated with topical broad spectrum antibiotic. Despite the treatment, some affected areas became necrotic and the patient developed sepsis. After 7 days of aggressive treatment with antibiotics the patient died.

A 62-year-old Navajo potter came to the emergency department because of a fever of 40° C, lumbar pain, nausea, vomiting, and loose, runny stools. The patient exhibited a non-productive cough and reported severe shortness of breath (‘like an elephant sitting on her chest’). She reports that the symptoms began a few days after cleaning out a storage shed on her property to expand her studio space. Her respiratory rate was 18 breaths/min, and her blood pressure was 85/55 mm Hg. Chest radiographic examination showed extensive infiltrates in the left lower lung that involved both the lower lobe and the lingula.

A 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use entered the local health clinic with complaints of a dry persistent cough, fever, malaise, and anorexia. Over the preceding 4 weeks, he had lost 15 pounds and experienced chills and sweats. A chest radiograph revealed patchy infiltrates throughout the lung fields. Because the patient had a nonproductive cough, sputum was induced and submitted for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial cultures, as well as examination for Pneumocystis organisms. Blood cultures and serologic tests for HIV infection were performed. The patient was found to be HIV positive. The results of all cultures were negative after 2 days of incubation.

A 63-year-old man farmer living in Florida who had a 4-day history of fever, myalgias, and malaise without localizing symptoms is brought to the regional hospital because he awoke from sleep with fever, emesis, and confusion. On physical examination, he had a temperature of 39° C, blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg, pulse of 110, and respirations were 18/minute. No respiratory distress was noted. Treatment was initiated for presumed bacterial meningitis. Basilar infiltrates and a widened mediastinum were noted on the initial chest radiograph. The Gram stain of CSF revealed many neutrophils and large gram-positive rods. During the first day of hospitalization, the patient had a grand mal seizure and was intubated. On the second hospital day, hypotension and azotemia (reduced kidney function) developed, with subsequent renal failure. On the third hospital day, refractory hypotension developed, and the patient had a fatal cardiac arrest.

A 52 year old man is hospitalized after complaints of nausea, vomiting and a strange constant feeling of fullness (patient belches continuously during physical exam). Upon an examination of his medical records, the medical staff finds he has a peptic ulcer that was not being treated due to lack of symptoms. A noninvasive urease test was performed and was found to be positive confirming their suspicions.

soft chancre

teratogenic (disturbs fetal growth)

Guillain-Barré syndrome

neurotropic

production of glucan

IMpetigo

carbuncle

gas gangrene

acne

leprosy

A female patient presents at her primary care physician complaining of pain in her groin. On examination, she is found to have enlarged inguinal lymph nodes and painless lesions around her genitalia and anus. She is also 5 months pregnant. Questioning reveals that her boyfriend has recently returned from a vacation to see his family in Venezuela. She is very distressed and fears for the baby. A diagnosis was made on the basis of positive serology to the serotypes of this non-motile, gram-negative, intracellular bacterium.

A 15-year-old girl admitted to the hospital with a 2-day history of pharyngitis and vaginitis associated with vomiting and watery diarrhea. She was febrile and hypotensive on admission, with a diffuse erythematous rash over her entire body. Laboratory tests were consistent with acidosis, oliguria, and disseminated intravascular coagulation with severe thrombocytopenia. Her chest radiograph showed bilateral infiltrates suggestive of “shock lung.” (edema, impaired perfusion, and reduction in alveolar space so that the alveoli collapse). She was admitted to the hospital intensive care unit where she was stabilized, and she improved gradually over a 17-day period. On the third day, fine desquamation started on her face, trunk, and extremities and progressed to peeling of the palms and soles by the 14th day.

A 17-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with a 4-day history of fever, chills, malaise, sore throat, skin rash, and polyarthralgia. She reported being sexually active and a 5-week history of a profuse yellowish/greenish vaginal discharge, which was untreated. Upon presentation, she had erythematous maculopapular skin rash over her forearm, thigh, and ankle, and her metacarpophalangeal joint, wrist, knee, ankle, and midtarsal joints were acutely inflamed. She had an elevated leukocyte count and sedimentation rate.

zoonotic infection with its primary reservoir

primary virulence factor

A 6-week-old infant boy is brought to the hospital with a 10-day history of choking spells. His mother states he has had a repetitive cough, and is wheezing, turning red, and gasping for air. Following the coughing spells, the infant boy often vomits as well. A chest radiograph reveals his trachea is normal and clear, but his white blood cell count is up to 15,500/µL with 70% lymphocytes.